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Life Science Final Exam x

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A change in an organism's surroundings that causes it to react is called
a.
a response.
c.
energy.
b.
a stimulus.
d.
development.
 

 2. 

The mistaken idea that living things arise from nonliving sources is known as
a.
development.
c.
reproduction.
b.
spontaneous generation.
d.
homeostasis.
 

 3. 

The source of energy for most autotrophs is
a.
water.
c.
heterotrophs.
b.
the sun.
d.
other autotrophs.
 

 4. 

Homeostasis refers to
a.
an organism's ability to maintain stable internal conditions.
c.
an organism's ability to dissolve chemicals.
b.
an organism's ability to compete for living space.
d.
an organism's ability to obtain energy.
 

 5. 

The invention of the microscope made it possible for people to discover and learn about
a.
plants.
c.
animals.
b.
skin.
d.
cells.
 

 6. 

Which of the following statements is part of the cell theory?
a.
Only plants are composed of cells.
c.
Cells can be produced from nonliving matter.
b.
All cells are produced from other cells.
d.
Cells are one of several basic units of structure and function in living things.
 

 7. 

What is the function of a cell membrane?
a.
to protect and support the cell
c.
to control what enters and leaves the cell
b.
to perform different functions in each cell
d.
to form a hard outer covering for the cell
 

 8. 

Which organelles produce most of the energy needed by a cell?
a.
mitochondria
c.
ribosomes
b.
chloroplasts
d.
Golgi bodies
 

 9. 

Which organelles produce proteins in the cell?
a.
Golgi bodies
c.
ribosomes
b.
chloroplasts
d.
vacuoles
 

 10. 

How does a bacterial cell differ from a plant or animal cell?
a.
It is larger.
c.
It has no cytoplasm.
b.
It does not have a nucleus.
d.
It has no organelles.
 

 11. 

All organic compounds contain the element
a.
water.
c.
carbon.
b.
oxygen.
d.
nitrogen.
 

 12. 

Which term refers to proteins that speed up chemical reactions in living things?
a.
carbohydrate
c.
amino acid
b.
enzyme
d.
nucleic acid
 

 13. 

DNA and RNA are
a.
lipids.
c.
amino acids.
b.
enzymes.
d.
nucleic acids.
 

 14. 

Which term refers to the movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane?
a.
osmosis
c.
active transport
b.
engulfing
d.
passive transport
 

 15. 

Which term refers to the movement of materials through a cell membrane when energy is required?
a.
osmosis
c.
active transport
b.
diffusion
d.
passive transport
 

 16. 

What are the products of photosynthesis?
a.
carbon dioxide and water
c.
carbon dioxide and sugars
b.
oxygen and water
d.
oxygen and sugars
 

 17. 

What happens during respiration?
a.
Oxygen is released into the air.
c.
Carbohydrates are released into the bloodstream.
b.
Glucose is broken down, releasing energy.
d.
Water and carbon dioxide are converted into energy.
 

 18. 

Which term refers to the production of energy by a cell without using oxygen?
a.
photosynthesis
c.
fertilization
b.
respiration
d.
fermentation
 

 19. 

Mitosis is the stage during which
a.
the cell's nucleus divides into two new nuclei.
c.
the cell divides into two new cells.
b.
the cell's DNA is replicated.
d.
the cell's cytoplasm divides.
 

 20. 

What are chromatids?
a.
identical strands of chromosomes
c.
doubled rods of condensed chromatin.
b.
identical daughter cells
d.
pigments that absorb the energy in sunlight
 

 21. 

What happens during cytokinesis in animal cells?
a.
A new round of mitosis begins.
c.
Each organelle divides into two parts.
b.
Two new daughter cells are formed.
d.
A cell plate forms in the middle of the cell.
 

 22. 

Each rung of the DNA ladder is made of
a.
a single nitrogen base.
b.
a pair of nitrogen bases.
c.
three nitrogen bases.
d.
four nitrogen bases.
 

 23. 

During DNA replication, adenine (A) always pairs with
a.
guanine (G).
b.
cytosine (C).
c.
thymine (T).
d.
adenine (A).
 

 24. 

Which term refers to physical characteristics that are studied in genetics?
a.
traits
b.
offspring
c.
generations
d.
hybrids
 

 25. 

The different forms of a gene are called
a.
alleles.
b.
factors
c.
masks.
d.
traits.
 

 26. 

Scientists call an organism that has two different alleles for a trait a
a.
hybrid.
b.
trait.
c.
purebred.
d.
factor.
 

 27. 

What does the notation TT mean to geneticists?
a.
two dominant alleles
b.
two recessive alleles
c.
at least one dominant allele
d.
one dominant and one recessive allelle
 

 28. 

What does the notation Tt mean to geneticists?
a.
two dominant alleles
b.
two recessive alleles
c.
at least one recessive allele
d.
one dominant allele and one recessive allelle
 

 29. 

What is probability?
a.
the actual results from a series of events
b.
the likelihood that a particular event will occur
c.
the way the results of one event affect the next event
d.
the number of times a coin lands heads up
 

 30. 

What does a Punnett square show?
a.
all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross
b.
only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross
c.
only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross
d.
all of Mendel's discoveries about genetic crosses
 

 31. 

If a homozygous black guinea pig (BB) is crossed with a homozygous white guinea pig (bb), what is the probability that an offspring will have black fur?
a.
25 percent
b.
50 percent
c.
75 percent
d.
100 percent
 

 32. 

An organism's physical appearance is its
a.
genotype
b.
phenotype
c.
codominance
d.
heterozygous
 

 33. 

An organism's genotype is its
a.
genetic makeup
b.
feather color
c.
physical appearance
d.
stem height
 

 34. 

A heterozygous organism has
a.
three different alleles for a trait.
b.
two identical alleles for a trait.
c.
only one allele for a trait.
d.
two different alleles for a trait.
 

 35. 

What does codominance mean in genetics?
a.
Both alleles are dominant.
b.
Both alleles are recessive.
c.
The alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
d.
Each allele is both dominant and recessive.
 

 36. 

What happens during meiosis?
a.
Each sex cell loses half of its chromosomes.
b.
Chromosome pairs separate to form new sex cells.
c.
Each sex cell copies itself to form four new chromosomes.
d.
Chromosome pairs remain together when new sex cells are formed.
 

 37. 

What does messenger RNA do during protein synthesis?
a.
copies the coded message from the DNA and carries it into the cytoplasm
b.
copies the coded message from the DNA and carries it into the nucleus
c.
carries amino acids and adds them to the growing protein
d.
copies the coded message from the protein and carries it into the nucleus
 

 38. 

Which nitrogen base in RNA is NOT part of DNA?
a.
adenine
b.
guanine
c.
cytosine
d.
uracil
 

 39. 

Which combination of sex chromosomes results in a male human being?
a.
XX
b.
YY
c.
XY
d.
either XX or YY
 

 40. 

A carrier is a person who has
a.
one recessive and one dominant allele for a trait.
b.
two recessive alleles for a trait.
c.
two dominant alleles for a trait.
d.
more than two alleles for a trait.
 

 41. 

What is a pedigree?
a.
a chart that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait
b.
a geneticist who studies the inheritance of traits in humans
c.
a picture of all of the chromosomes in a cell
d.
an allele passed from parent to child on a sex chromosome
 

 42. 

What procedure helps doctors diagnose a genetic disorder before a baby is born?
a.
genetic engineering
b.
selective breeding
c.
amniocentesis
d.
cloning
 

 43. 

What is a karyotype?
a.
blood from a newborn baby
b.
a picture of a baby before it is born
c.
a picture of the chromosomes in a cell
d.
fluid that surrounds a baby before it is born
 

 44. 

A species is a group of similar organisms that
a.
can mate with one another and produce fertile offspring.
b.
can live together on an island.
c.
can migrate to an island from the mainland.
d.
all have exactly the same traits.
 

 45. 

The gradual change in a species over time is called
a.
mutation.
b.
evolution.
c.
migration.
d.
variation.
 

 46. 

A trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce is called a(n)
a.
mutation.
b.
selection.
c.
adaptation.
d.
variation.
 

 47. 

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce?
a.
natural selection
b.
overproduction
c.
competition
d.
variation
 

 48. 

How do scientists determine the actual age of fossils?
a.
relative dating
b.
absolute dating
c.
sedimentary dating
d.
mold and cast dating
 

 49. 

What evidence is most important when using relative dating?
a.
the half-life of a radioactive element
b.
the position of sediment in petrified rock
c.
the types of minerals in a petrified fossil
d.
the position of fossils in sedimentary rock layers
 

 50. 

Which term refers to a species that no longer has any living members?
a.
molded
b.
fossilized
c.
extinct
d.
petrified
 

 51. 

What theory proposes that evolution occurs steadily in tiny changes over long periods of time?
a.
gradualism
b.
relative dating
c.
natural selection
d.
punctuated equilibria
 

 52. 

What theory proposes that species evolve during short periods of rapid change?
a.
gradualism
b.
evolution
c.
absolute dating
d.
punctuated equilibria
 

 53. 

Which term refers to similar structures that related species have inherited from a common ancestor?
a.
DNA sequences
b.
developmental organisms
c.
homologous structures
d.
punctuated equilibria
 

 54. 

A branching tree is
a.
a diagram showing how scientists think different groups of organisms are related.
b.
a species of tree that is not closely related to other tree species.
c.
a drawing that shows where different animals live in a tree.
d.
a homologous structure that many plants have.
 

 55. 

What is taxonomy?
a.
the scientific study of how living things are classified
b.
the name of Aristotle's classification system
c.
the process used by geologists to classify rocks
d.
the process of observing an organism's behavior
 

 56. 

What is binomial nomenclature?
a.
Classifying organisms into seven levels
b.
The naming system developed by Aristotle
c.
Grouping animals based on how they move
d.
A naming system in which each organism is given a two-part name
 

 57. 

An organism's scientific name consists of
a.
its class name and its family name.
b.
its kingdom name and its phylum name.
c.
its genus name and its species name.
d.
its phylum name and its species name.
 

 58. 

Which is the broadest classification level?
a.
family
b.
kingdom
c.
phylum
d.
species
 

 59. 

Which of the following characteristics do all plants share?
a.
being unicellular
b.
producing flowers
c.
being a prokaryote
d.
being an autotroph
 

 60. 

The process of breaking down food to release its energy is called
a.
conjugation.
b.
respiration.
c.
binary fission.
d.
nutrition.
 

 61. 

What important role do bacteria called decomposers play?
a.
They return basic chemicals to the environment.
b.
They slow down food spoilage.
c.
They kill harmful bacteria.
d.
They produce vitamins.
 

 62. 

Viruses are considered to be nonliving because they
a.
cannot multiply.
b.
are not cells.
c.
produce wastes.
d.
use energy to grow.
 

 63. 

Why are viruses like parasites?
a.
They destroy the cells they enter.
b.
They multiply.
c.
They use energy to develop.
d.
They make their own food.
 

 64. 

Which phrase describes the size of virus particles?
a.
smaller than cells
b.
slightly larger than cells
c.
the same size as cells
d.
much larger than cells
 

 65. 

Like animals, animal-like protists are
a.
autotrophs.
b.
heterotrophs.
c.
unicellular.
d.
prokaryotes.
 

 66. 

How are funguslike protists similar to fungi?
a.
They can move.
b.
They are autotrophs.
c.
They use spores to reproduce.
d.
They do not have cell walls.
 

 67. 

The spores that funguslike protists produce
a.
grow into new organisms.
b.
produce slime on which the protist can move.
c.
break down food for the protist.
d.
form pseudopods.
 

 68. 

When are red tides dangerous to humans?
a.
when the oceans become warmer
b.
when algae bloom
c.
when algae produce toxins
d.
when algae toxins accumulate in shellfish
 

 69. 

What characteristic do fungi share?
a.
They are prokaryotes.
b.
They use spores to reproduce.
c.
They are autotrophs.
d.
They are multicellular.
 

 70. 

The structures that make up the bodies of multicellular fungi are called
a.
hyphae.
b.
nuclei.
c.
gills.
d.
cell walls.
 

 71. 

Where would fungi NOT thrive?
a.
forest floor
b.
wet bathroom tiles
c.
damp tree bark
d.
polar ice cap
 

 72. 

What type of reproduction produces fungi that differ from a parent?
a.
budding
b.
asexual reproduction
c.
sexual reproduction
d.
fruiting
 

 73. 

All plants are
a.
autotrophs.
b.
unicellular.
c.
heterotrophs.
d.
prokaryotes.
 

 74. 

The energy that powers photosynthesis comes from
a.
water.
b.
chemicals.
c.
oxygen.
d.
the sun.
 

 75. 

Groups of similar cells that perform a specific function are called
a.
gametes.
b.
chloroplasts.
c.
tissues.
d.
vacuoles.
 

 76. 

Nonvascular plants differ from vascular plants in
a.
how they make food.
b.
where they obtain water and nutrients.
c.
how they transport water and nutrients.
d.
how they reproduce.
 

 77. 

A fern's fronds are
a.
leaves.
b.
roots.
c.
stems.
d.
spores.
 

 78. 

What happens in phloem?
a.
Water moves up.
b.
Food moves down.
c.
Food moves up.
d.
Water moves down.
 

 79. 

Plants that produce seeds
a.
do not need cuticles on their leaves.
b.
transport the seeds in vascular tissue.
c.
can live in dry environments.
d.
do not need vascular tissue.
 

 80. 

Which of the following is(are) NOT a device for dispersing seeds?
a.
insects
b.
wind
c.
water
d.
large animals
 

 81. 

What part of a woody stem forms rings that indicate the tree's age?
a.
xylem
b.
phloem
c.
pith
d.
inner bark
 

 82. 

The reproductive structures of a gymnosperm are called
a.
pollen.
b.
ovules.
c.
cones.
d.
sperm cells.
 

 83. 

Which phrase describes pollination?
a.
the development of pollen grains
b.
the development of mature cones
c.
the transfer of pollen from male to female reproductive structures
d.
the joining of sperm and egg cells in an ovule
 

 84. 

All angiosperms
a.
produce cones.
b.
produce fruits.
c.
are seedless.
d.
are tropical.
 

 85. 

Flowers are
a.
structures for photosynthesis.
b.
vascular tissue structures.
c.
structures for seed dispersal.
d.
reproductive structures.
 

 86. 

A flower's female reproductive parts are called
a.
sepals.
b.
anthers.
c.
pistils.
d.
filaments.
 

 87. 

What part of a flower becomes fruit?
a.
ovary
b.
petal
c.
stamen
d.
pistil
 

 88. 

A grapevine coiling around a fence post is an example of
a.
positive gravitropism.
b.
positive thigmotropism.
c.
negative phototropism.
d.
all of the above.
 

 89. 

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by all animals?
a.
Their bodies have many cells.
b.
They eat autotrophs.
c.
They reproduce asexually.
d.
They have skeletons.
 

 90. 

What is the term for a group of tissues that work together to perform a specific, complex job?
a.
organism
b.
organ
c.
autotroph
d.
herbivore
 

 91. 

An animal that has a backbone is called a(n)
a.
cnidarian.
b.
predator.
c.
vertebrate.
d.
invertebrate.
 

 92. 

What is the term for an animal that hunts and kills other animals for food?
a.
vertebrate
b.
carnivore
c.
predator
d.
herbivore
 

 93. 

Which of these animals has radial symmetry?
a.
a sea anemone
b.
a butterfly
c.
a rabbit
d.
a snail
 

 94. 

An animal has bilateral symmetry if
a.
no lines can be drawn to divide the animal into halves that are mirror images.
b.
many lines can be drawn to divide the animal into halves that are mirror images.
c.
one line can be drawn to divide the animal into halves that are mirror images.
d.
any line through the center of the animal divides it into halves that are mirror images.
 

 95. 

How does a sponge gather its food?
a.
by trapping food in its pores
b.
by killing food with its spikes
c.
by trapping food in its collar cells
d.
by absorbing food through its osculum
 

 96. 

Sponges belong to the phylum
a.
Platyhelminthes.
b.
Porifera.
c.
Cnidaria.
d.
Invertebrata.
 

 97. 

Which of the following describes the feeding behavior of cnidarians?
a.
They are herbivores.
b.
They are omnivores.
c.
They are carnivores.
d.
They are autotrophs.
 

 98. 

The bodies of cnidarians have
a.
no symmetry.
b.
radial symmetry.
c.
bilateral symmetry.
d.
both radial and bilateral symmetry.
 

 99. 

Which of these is a vase-shaped cnidarian?
a.
a medusa
b.
a polyp
c.
a larva
d.
a jellyfish
 

 100. 

How are coral reefs created?
a.
from the skeletons of dead corals
b.
from the expelled waste of corals
c.
from the skeletons of prey caught by corals
d.
from the jelly produced by living corals
 

 101. 

Which of these is NOT a major kind of worm?
a.
flatworms
b.
roundworms
c.
silkworms
d.
segmented worms
 

 102. 

Which of the following is a flatworm?
a.
a leech
b.
an earthworm
c.
a hookworm
d.
a planarian
 

 103. 

Which of these characteristics is shared by all worms?
a.
They have a digestive system that is a tube.
b.
They are parasites.
c.
They live in soil.
d.
They have a brain.
 

 104. 

The ability of an organism to regrow lost parts is called
a.
regeneration.
b.
budding.
c.
parasitism.
d.
autotrophism.
 

 105. 

Organisms that grow on or in other organisms are called
a.
parasites.
b.
hosts.
c.
prey.
d.
scavengers.
 

 106. 

A segmented worm's circulatory system
a.
is closed.
b.
is open.
c.
is exactly the same in each segment.
d.
has a pumping organ in each segment.
 

 107. 

Which of the following is true of all mollusks?
a.
They have shells.
b.
They have soft bodies.
c.
They have segments.
d.
They have gills.
 

 108. 

Which of the following is a function of a mollusk's mantle?
a.
It produces the shell.
b.
It enables the mollusk to move.
c.
It helps the mollusk digest food.
d.
It removes wastes.
 

 109. 

A mollusk's radula enables it to
a.
reproduce.
b.
remove oxygen from water.
c.
remove wastes from the body.
d.
scrape food from a surface.
 

 110. 

Snails and slugs belong to which group of mollusks?
a.
gastropods
b.
arthropods
c.
bivalves
d.
cephalopods
 

 111. 

A bivalve obtains food by
a.
using a radula.
b.
filtering it from water.
c.
trapping it between two shells.
d.
grabbing it with its muscular foot.
 

 112. 

An arthropod's tough outer covering is called
a.
an endoskeleton.
b.
an exoskeleton.
c.
armor.
d.
a mantle.
 

 113. 

Which arthropods have no antennae?
a.
crustaceans
b.
arachnids
c.
insects
d.
ticks
 

 114. 

The bodies of all spiders have
a.
two body sections.
b.
two antennae.
c.
two wings.
d.
six swimmerets.
 

 115. 

Which of these is NOT an arthropod?
a.
centipede
b.
grasshopper
c.
snail
d.
lobster
 

 116. 

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by all insects?
a.
one pair of antennae
b.
four legs
c.
three pairs of wings
d.
two body sections
 

 117. 

Which of these is NOT an insect?
a.
bee
b.
beetle
c.
mite
d.
grasshopper
 

 118. 

Which of these is NOT a stage in complete metamorphosis?
a.
egg
b.
larva
c.
pupa
d.
nymph
 

 119. 

Molting occurs during the gradual metamorphosis of an insect whenever
a.
the nymph needs food.
b.
it emerges from a cocoon.
c.
its full-sized wings harden.
d.
the nymph outgrows its exoskeleton.
 

 120. 

Fireflies use light to
a.
find water.
b.
keep themselves warm.
c.
reproduce.
d.
frighten predators.
 

 121. 

What does the backbone protect in a vertebrate?
a.
the heart and lungs
b.
the notochord
c.
the spinal cord
d.
the pharyngeal cord
 

 122. 

If an animal is an ectotherm, it has
a.
a skeleton on the outside of its body.
b.
a skeleton on the inside of its body.
c.
a body that controls its internal temperature.
d.
a body that does not produce much internal heat.
 

 123. 

Fish take in oxygen through their
a.
fins.
b.
gills.
c.
scales.
d.
vertebrae.
 

 124. 

Most fishes reproduce by means of
a.
budding.
b.
regeneration.
c.
external fertilization.
d.
internal fertilization.
 

 125. 

What type of fish is a lamprey?
a.
a bony fish
b.
a jawless fish
c.
a cartilaginous fish
d.
an endothermic fish
 

 126. 

Which of the following fish has a skeleton made of hard bone?
a.
a shark
b.
a ray
c.
a goldfish
d.
a hagfish
 

 127. 

What is the function of a swim bladder?
a.
to control buoyancy
b.
to eliminate excess oxygen
c.
to help digest food
d.
to process body wastes
 

 128. 

Most adult amphibians can obtain oxygen through
a.
gills and lungs.
b.
gills and thin, moist skin.
c.
lungs and thin, moist skin.
d.
lungs only.
 

 129. 

How many chambers are there in a typical adult amphibian's heart?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
 

 130. 

Amphibians are especially sensitive to changes in the environment because
a.
few amphibians have camouflage.
b.
their eggs are tough and leathery.
c.
they do well only in sunny areas.
d.
their skin is very thin.
 

 131. 

Which of the following is a biotic factor in the prairie ecosystem?
a.
water
b.
sunlight
c.
soil
d.
grass
 

 132. 

The nonliving parts of an ecosystem are called
a.
populations.
b.
organisms.
c.
biotic factors.
d.
abiotic factors.
 

 133. 

The place where an organism lives and that provides the things the organism needs is called its
a.
habitat.
b.
population.
c.
species.
d.
community.
 

 134. 

All the different populations that live together in an area make up a(n)
a.
organism.
b.
community.
c.
species.
d.
ecosystem.
 

 135. 

The study of how things interact with each other and with their environment is called
a.
ecology.
b.
photosynthesis.
c.
community.
d.
biotic studies.
 

 136. 

The struggle between organisms to survive in a habitat with limited resources is called
a.
competition.
b.
predation.
c.
symbiosis.
d.
parasitism.
 

 137. 

By hunting at different times of day, the hawk and owl are able to reduce
a.
predation.
b.
competition.
c.
adaptation.
d.
parasitism.
 

 138. 

Which of the following describes an interaction in which one organism kills and eats another?
a.
competition
b.
symbiosis
c.
predation
d.
mutualism
 

 139. 

When a jellyfish paralyzes a tiny fish with its poisonous tentacles, the fish is the
a.
predator.
b.
prey.
c.
host.
d.
parasite.
 

 140. 

A close relationship between two species that benefits at least one of the species is called
a.
natural selection.
b.
symbiosis.
c.
adaptation.
d.
competition.
 

 141. 

An organism that can make its own food is called a
a.
consumer.
b.
decomposer.
c.
producer.
d.
scavenger.
 

 142. 

Consumers that eat both plants and animals are called
a.
omnivores.
b.
herbivores.
c.
carnivores.
d.
scavengers.
 

 143. 

Which of these consumers is an herbivore?
a.
lion
b.
deer
c.
spider
d.
snake
 

 144. 

Vultures, which feed on the bodies of dead organisms, are
a.
first-level consumers.
b.
scavengers.
c.
producers.
d.
herbivores.
 

 145. 

The first organism in a food chain is always a(n)
a.
consumer.
b.
herbivore.
c.
carnivore.
d.
producer.
 

 146. 

The many overlapping food chains in an ecosystem make up a(n)
a.
food web.
b.
niche.
c.
energy pyramid.
d.
feeding level.
 

 147. 

What do producers release as a result of photosynthesis?
a.
hydrogen
b.
nitrogen
c.
oxygen
d.
carbon dioxide
 

 148. 

Which land biome receives less than 25 centimeters of rain per year?
a.
desert
b.
grassland
c.
temperate rain forest
d.
tropical rain forest
 

 149. 

Which land biome is extremely cold and dry?
a.
desert
b.
tundra
c.
grassland
d.
mountains
 

 150. 

Ponds and rivers are two types of
a.
marine biomes.
b.
rain forest biomes.
c.
freshwater biomes.
d.
estuary biomes.
 



 
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